This is a post I’ve been meaning to write for a long time now, simply because it’s subject is really the reason this blog exists. As I said in my newly-updated
About This Blog post, this is where I put some of those thoughts about my faith (speaking very generally) that bounce around in my head, and just won’t go away. It helps to have a place to organize my thoughts, and I can come back to a particular post if I forget where my thinking was on a particular topic. Also, for those doubts or questions that don’t really have good answers, clicking that “Publish Post” button is like flushing the toilet.
Several months ago,
Cliff Martin over at
Outside The Box (a blog that I used to read regularly) posted his list of
Understandings I’m Seeking – A list of difficult issues he was interested in understanding better. Ever since, I’ve kept a mental list of my own, to which I add as new issues become important to me, and subtract as I gain understanding on some issues.
Lately, my “Understandings I’m Seeking” list has become stagnant. The same issues have been at the top of the list for quite a while, which means that they have remained important to me, while simultaneously proving difficult to understand, at least for me. It is for this reason I think it is time for my own “Understandings I’m Seeking” post.
Understandings I’m Seeking
1. The relationship between the teachings of Jesus and the Apostle Paul
I'm seeking to understand how the teachings of Jesus are related to those of the Apostle Paul. In particular, I want to understand why Jesus' teachings are so different from those of Paul, especially when it comes to the requirements for salvation.
In my own Baptist tradition, the words of Jesus are constantly twisted to fit into a Paul-shaped mold, and to me, that just seems wrong. I hope one might be able to assume that God-incarnate would be able to get it right! But instead I constantly hear (in reference to Jesus' words) "Well.... You have to read that in light of ..." - And then some passage from Romans or Hebrews.
I understand the desire to harmonize the Scriptures, and the belief that inspired Scripture must fit together. But if God really did become man, and that man is Jesus Christ, than something is wrong. I am seeking to understand what that is.
2. The second coming of Jesus and the New Testament expectation that it was immanent
I’m seeking to better understand why the first Christians (and especially Jesus Himself) expected Jesus’ second coming to happen soon, as recorded in passages like
Matt. 10:23,
Matt. 16:27-28,
Luke 21:5-36 1 Thess 4:14-15,
Rev. 1:1, and many, many others. This expectation is typically explained away by claiming that Jesus, when He said "this generation will not pass away" before He returns, did not mean "generation" but instead meant the nation of Israel or even the generation that is alive when Jesus returns. (How convenient!)
I’m continually flabbergasted that the same people who insist on using the “plain reading” of Genesis 1-2 will put forth such flimsy explanations for the very plain statements of the expectation of the imminent return of Jesus. Once again, if God did become man, and that man is Jesus Christ, can't we expect Him to know what He was talking about?
I've done a significant amount of reading about the eschatological belief called
preterism, which claims that all of Jesus' end-times prophecies were fulfilled within the timeframe he predicted, specifically in 70AD during the
siege and destruction of Jerusalem by the Roman army. This is not the place for a discussion on eschatology, but I should say that neither futurism nor preterism have provided satisfactory explanations for Biblical end-times prophesy.
I am seeking to understand what Jesus really meant by his end-times prophecies, and how this fits in with the rest of Biblical teaching. I especially am seeking to understand the implications of a successful eschatology on they way I view the world: Is the world coming to an end, or is it getting better and better? Is Jesus coming back, and will that be soon?
3. The dogma of Biblical inspiration and (secondarily) inerrancy
I’m seeking to understand why some Christians believe in the doctrine of
verbal, plenary inspiration. (The equal inspiration of every word of scripture) Christians always give passages like
2 Peter 1:20-21 and
2 Timothy 3:16-17 as proof that the Bible (every single word of it) is equally inspired by God. Why don't these Christians notice the blatant circularity of this claim? A text
within the New Testament that refers to "scripture"
cannot be referring to the New Testament. At best, these proof texts can only refer to the Hebrew Scriptures (The Old Testament), and any texts considered “scripture” at the time the proof-text was written, if any.
I am seeking to understand the
reality of Biblical inspiration as opposed to the
dogma of Biblical inspiration. I believe that the Bible is inspired, and
useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting, and training in righteousness, but I am unconvinced by any argument for
verbal, plenary inspiration that takes the form: "The Bible is inspired because it says it is inspired." I realize that any "proof" of inspiration that refuses to grant authority to any source other than the Bible will always be circular. I just wish that this fact were not constantly ignored.
Of secondary importance is my desire to understand why some Christians believe in the inerrancy of the Bible. This is only of secondary importance because I have come to a settled belief that this position is entirely indefensible. Still, I am seeking to understand the implications of this apparent fact; On how it affects the way I should read the Bible, and how it affects the task of biblical interpretation.
4. The relationship between the Old and New Testaments
This issue has troubled me from the time I was a little kid: I am seeking to understand why God is portrayed so differently in the Old and New Testaments. The God of the Old Testament commands his people to
kill rebellious teenagers,
beat their slaves to within an inch of their death, to
destroy entire cities,
killing all men, women, children and babies, (including
nursing babies and
"ripping open" pregnant women) and
actively participates in these slayings by
chucking hailstones from heaven. In contrast, the God of the New Testament commands us to
be peaceful,
merciful, to
love our enemies,
turn the other cheek,
return blessing for evil, and to
live at peace with everyone. Are we talking about the same God here?
I understand that all people are sinners and deserve death. God can choose to do whatever he wants. This is not the issue. I am seeking to understand why God's message to His people, His communication to them about what is important, and His overal approach to justice is so startlingly different between the Old and New Testaments.
5. The soverignty of God and the problem of Theodicy (the problem of the existence of evil)
This issue is a little different: It involves two seemingly seperate issues on which I have come to a general understanding (or acceptance), but my thinking on these two issues is incompatible.
It is evident to me that God (in many occasions, if not all) chooses those with whom he is going to form a relationship: God chose Adam, not vice-versa. God chose Noah, not vice-versa. God chose Abraham, not vice-versa. God chose Moses, not vice-versa. God chose the 12 disciples, not vice-versa. You get the point. And it's hard to deny the reality of election with Bible passages like
Mark 13:20,
Romans 8:29-30,
Romans 9:14-24, and on and on... The entire Bible shows God constantly
choosing us, not the other way around.
Now, this doesn't mean we don't have a choice in whether to love God. A man can
choose to romantically pursue a particular woman, but she will still have a choice of whether to reciprocate. Excuse the imperfect analogy, but this may be the situation between God and us. And God's power to woo surely surpasses even that of
Giacoma Cassanova. Still, it is obvious to me that in some way, my relationship with God is more dependent on He than on me.
The second issue involves
theodicy; the problem of existence of evil in the world, and the general lack of evidence for God's existence. I've
written about this before: To me it seems the best explanation for this is that God created us to love, and love cannot be forced. Ironically, pastor-turned-atheist
Dan Barker says it best:
It is a counterfeit love that is contingent upon authority, punishment, or reward. True love is respect and admiration, compassion and kindness, freely given by a healthy, unafraid human being. [source]
The problem lies in the integration of the two issues above. If God chooses those with whom He has a relationship, then why is there evil in the world? Why is there a need? (And please, don't say "The Fall" - The fall came as a result of God giving Man a choice) Conversely, if God values our free will enough to accept all the things that go along with it (i.e. evil, suffering) then does he really choose his "elect"? In order to answer theses two questions, I must talk out of both sides of my mouth, and that really bothers me. The answer may be as simple as my Cassanova example (above) but that has so far been unsatisfying.
So there's my list. If you can help on any of the above, by all means,
email me. Or better yet, leave a comment on this post and let everyone benefit. I have fantasies of someday writing a single post on each of the above, but
I know better than to commit. I'll just take it one post at a time.